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Originally Posted by falco10291029
You however have not shown any evidence that your interpretation is founded by an expertry in langauge
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Except that it's quite obvious that I'm more skilled with the "langauge" than you.
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Alright, then i will redefine myself as saying Being biased towards x is Treating x differently than someone with which no bias has been formed
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Little better. But still incorrect. Here's an idea: Google for the term "biased towards" and see how the majority of articles are using it.
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Maybe not even argumentive. But a grammarical flaw has nothing to do with definitions
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No, it's more a matter of general linguistic ability. They tend to correlate pretty well, though.
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I am not exactly sure how it's categorized, but the mistake you showed is hardly considered one in common grammar
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None of the three examples I gave are of mistakes. That's my
point. As I said, the 'that' is optional.
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I wasn't saying arrogance would have faults
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You referred to faults
of arrogance, and the context (the fact that you were contrasting it with a claim regarding possession of a fault) implied ownership.